IAT- Extra Credit

After reading about attitudes and their dual nature (autmatic vs. controlled processes) as well as the prejudice section of chapter 17, go to this website.
Choose the demonstration page and then click on "Go To Demonstration Tests". Then click "I wish to proceed" at the bottom of the page that appears. Choose two of the tests to take. Follow the directions given.

Print your results for both tests. Attach these to your paper.
Write a one page reaction paper (double-spaced) indicating what you think about results and why. Also decribe what the IAT is measuring in your own words. Due in class by March 18th. No late papers accepted. Worth 15 points.

https://implicit.harvard.edu/implicit/

Real Age Extra Credit

Go to this website and take the real age test. Print your results and bring to class by March 17th. Results may be turned in early and late papers will not be accepted at all. Worth 15 points extra credit. Attach a one page (double-spcaed) response to the test. Do you think your results reflect your real age? What can you do to improve your real age?

http://www.oprah.com/health/lifestages/realage/health_real_main.jhtml

Study Guides Chapters 15 & 17

Chapter 15 Study Guide

Describe the vulnerability-stress model of abnormal behavior and how it illustrates person–situation interactions.
Cite and define the “Three Ds” that enter into diagnoses of abnormal behavior.
Define reliability and validity as applied to diagnostic classification systems. Describe the five axes of the DSM-IV-TR. Describe the effects of psychiatric labeling on social and self perceptions.
Differentiate between competency and insanity as legal concepts, and explain how they have affected recent court cases.
Describe the four components of anxiety. Describe the characteristics of anxiety disorders, including phobic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Describe the four major features of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
Describe the three types of dissociative disorders and their causal factors. Describe the trauma-dissociation theory of dissociative identity disorder (DID) and how critics challenge and explain DID.
Describe the four classes of symptoms that characterize depression and mania, and describe sex differences in symptom manifestation. Describe the cognitive triad, the depressive attributional pattern, and learned helplessness in relation to depression. Describe the sociocultural factors related to prevalence, manifestations, and sex differences in depression. Describe the motives for suicide, identify the warning signs of suicide, and state four guidelines for helping a suicidal person.
Define schizophrenia, and describe the major cognitive, behavioral, emotional, and perceptual features of schizophrenia. Describe the differences among the four major types of schizophrenic disorders.
Describe the characteristics of antisocial personality disorder. Describe the major features of borderline personality disorder.
Describe the major features and causal factors in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and autistic disorders.

Chapter 17 Study Guide

Differentiate between personal and situational attributions. Describe and provide examples of the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias, and explain how they are affected by culture.
Define the term attitude, and describe three factors that explain the variability of observed relations between attitudes and behaviors. Explain the causes of cognitive dissonance and how it produces attitude change.
Differentiate between social norms and social roles. Explain how norms and roles guide behavior, differentiating between informational and normative social influences.
Describe situational factors that influence group conformity, and describe when minority influence will be strongest. Describe the purpose, methods, and results of Milgram’s study on obedience and the implications for society. Describe four common compliance techniques, and explain how they work.
Describe social loafing and social compensation and describe the causes and consequences of group polarization and groupthink.
Describe deindividuation, its main cause, and how conditions in the Stanford prison study may have fostered it.
Describe how implicit prejudice is measured and explain the cognitive and motivational roots of prejudice. Describe how self-fulfilling prophecies and stereotype threat perpetuate prejudice and how equal status contact reduces prejudice.
Describe evolutionary and social learning and empathy-altruistic explanations for helping behavior. Describe when and whom people are most likely to help and how prosocial behavior can be increased.

Homework Assignment #4: Chapters 12 & 13

PSY 110 Homework Assignment #4: Chapters 12 & 13 WINTER 2008

Write answers on the answer sheet provided. Choose only one answer per question.

Chapter 12 True/False Questions

______ 1. In developmental research, a sensitive period is defined as an optimal age range for certain developmentally key experiences to occur, but if they don't, normal development may still be possible.
______ 2. During the germinal stage of development, the fertilized egg is called an embryo.
______ 3. Syphilis and HIV are both examples of teratogens that can cause abnormal prenatal development.
______ 4. Jean Piaget's concept of assimilation specifically refers to the ways in which new experiences are incorporated with preexisting schemas.
______ 5. Erik Erickson's psychosocial model implies that personality is not necessarily a stable construct across a life span.
______ 6. Cross-cultural studies suggest that both stranger and separation anxiety show highly similar patterns in different cultures.
______ 7. Studies suggest that children from lower-income families who receive high-quality day care are more socially adjusted and perform better in school than children who do not attend day care.
______ 8. A child who makes moral decisions based on the desire to gain people's approval is most likely in Lawrence Kohlberg's preconventional level of moral reasoning.
______ 9. According to the developmental psychologist James Marcia, adolescents in the identity diffusion stage are currently dealing with an identity crisis but have not yet successfully resolved it.
______ 10. Marital researchers have determined that relationship satisfaction typically decreases in the first few years after getting married.

Chapter 12 Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each question. Write answers on the answer sheet provided. Choose only one answer per question.

______ 11. In a sequential research design, ________________ is/are tested ____________.
A. Several age cohorts; only once B. Several age cohorts; repeatedly
C. A single age cohort; only once D. A single age cohort; repeatedly

______ 12. A researcher is interested in examining the development and effects of shyness. To do this, she identifies a group of 100 shy children at age 10, and then follows them for the next 30 years, checking in periodically to gather additional information. This design is best described as a:
A. Longitudinal design B. Cross-sectional design C. Placebo design D. Sequential design

______ 13. Which of the following statements regarding the sex of a child is TRUE?
A. The sex of a child is determined by the father's genetic contribution
B. The sex of a child is determined by the mother's genetic contribution
C. The sex of a child is determined by the mother's and the father's genetic contributions
D. The sex of a child is unrelated to the genetic contributions of either parent

______ 14. Which of the following examples best demonstrates the process of accommodation?
A. An infant who is used to sucking on a pacifier learns that she can also suck on toy blocks
B. A toddler begins to correctly refer to a horse as a "horsy" and not a "big doggie."
C. A toddler at dinner attempts to eat the place mat because she thinks it is something to eat
D. A toddler refers to a giraffe as a "tall kitty."

______ 15. Which of the following first appears during the preoperational stage of cognitive development?
A. Language B. Conservation C. Pretend play D. Object permanence

______ 16. One of the things that differentiates the formal and concrete operational stages is that during the formal stage children:
A. Show evidence of conservation for the first time B. Begin to think more flexibly and creatively
C. Show clear instances of animism in their speech D. Show evidence of object permanence for the first time

______ 17. The concept of a zone of proximal development is most closely associated with which of the following theorists?
A. Jean Piaget B. Lev Vygotsky C. Lawrence Kohlberg D. Erik Erickson

______ 18. Lev Vygotsky's concept of a proximal zone of development distinguishes between children who:
A. Have or have not developed object permanence B. Do or do not grasp the concept of conservation
C. Can solve key problems with or without assistance D. Are or are not egocentric ______ 19. Around the age of 18 months, infants can recognize themselves in a mirror. Developmental psychologists take this as evidence that these children have developed:
A. Object permanence B. A sense of self C. Egocentrism D. Concrete operational thinking

______ 20. The researcher Harry Harlow is most strongly associated with which of the following constructs?
A. Temperament B. Contact comfort C. Moral reasoning D. Object permanence

______ 21. The psychologist Mary Ainsworth used ____________ to examine different types of infant attachment.
A. Wire cylinder monkeys B. The strange situation C. Moral dilemmas D. Conservation problems

______ 22. The "strange situation" is most strongly associated with which of the following?
A. Temperament B. Moral development C. Attachment D. Egocentrism

______ 23. According to research conducted on Diana Baumrind's parenting styles, the one that is associated with the most positive childhood outcomes is the ____________ style.
A. Authoritarian B. Authoritative C. Neglectful D. Indulgent

______ 24. The most negative developmental outcomes are associated with which of the following parenting styles?
A. Authoritative B. Authoritarian C. Neglectful D. Indulgent

______ 25. A child has low self-esteem, is not very popular with her peers, and is not doing very well in school, but shows NO signs of any aggressive or impulsive behavior. These are all adjustment outcomes associated with the ______________ style of parenting.
A. Authoritarian B. Neglectful C. Indulgent D. Authoritative

______ 26. In response to the moral dilemma in which a man must decide whether he should steal a medication to save his dying wife, a child says that he shouldn't steal the medication because if he does, he'll be punished. This child would be classified as being in Lawrence Kohlberg's __________ level of moral reasoning.
A. Preconventional B. Preoperational C. Conventional D. Concrete operational

______ 27. Concepts such as the personal fable and the imaginary audience are both most relevant to:
A. Sex typing B. Sex-role stereotypes C. Adolescent egocentrism D. Object permanence

______ 28. Senile dementia refers to dementia that occurs:
A. After age 18 B. Before age 18 C. Before age 65 D. After age 65

______ 29. James Marcia's concepts of identity diffusion and foreclosure are similar in that they both involve adolescents who:
A. Have not yet gone through identity crises B. Are currently experiencing identity crises
C. Display primarily concrete operational thought D. Have already successfully resolved identity crises

______ 30. In the study by Arnett (2001), when asked which characteristics "must be achieved before a person can be considered an adult," participants rated the single most important criterion to be:
A. Reaching age 18 B. Employed full-time C. Marriage D. Individualism

Chapter 13 True/False Questions

______ 1. Psychoanalytic theory asserts that a person who becomes fixated in the anal stage will most likely show strong signs of self-indulgence or dependency as an adult.
______ 2. One of the criticisms of psychoanalytic theory is that it is so broad and comprehensive that it can explain almost any behavioral outcome and is therefore difficult to falsify.
______ 3. The humanistic concept of self-actualization specifically refers to people's need to maintain a consistent and congruent self-concept.
______ 4. According to Carl Rogers, limitations that determine when people approve or disapprove of themselves are known as conditions of worth.
______ 5. Criticisms of the humanistic approach to personality include that it relies too heavily on self-report and sometimes utilizes apparently circular reasoning.
______ 6. Studies have revealed that personality traits tend to be significantly more consistent across situations than they are across time.
______ 7. Twin studies suggest that genetic factors and nonshared unique environments both play important roles in the shaping of personality traits.
______ 8. The concept of reciprocal determinism argues that the person, the person's behavior, and the environment can each influence one another.

Chapter 13 Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each question. Write answers on the answer sheet provided. Choose only one answer per question.

______ 9. The "A" in the personality acronym OCEAN stands for:
A. Apprehensiveness B. Adventurousness C. Aggressiveness D. Agreeableness

______ 10. Which of the following correctly lists the "Big Five" personality traits?
A. Outgoingness, conscientiousness, excitability, agreeableness, and nervousness
B. Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
C. Openness, candidness, excitability, apprehensiveness, and nervousness
D. Outgoingness, candidness, extraversion, affability, and neuroticism

______ 11. A person who is intellectual, imaginative, and has a broad range of interests would mostly likely score highly on a measure of:
A. Openness B. Agreeableness C. Extraversion D. Conscientiousness

______ 12. Assuming that you are NOT currently thinking about these things, your memory for what you did during your last summer vacation would most likely reside in what Sigmund Freud considered the:
A. Unconscious mind B. Preconscious mind C. Nonconscious mind D. Conscious mind

______ 13. Sigmund Freud divided personality into three separate but interacting structures called:
A. The conscious, unconscious, and preconscious mind B. The id, ego, and superego
C. Repression, denial, and sublimation D. Free association, hypnosis, and dream analysis

______ 14. The activities of the ______________ are primarily governed by the pleasure principle.
A. Id B. Ego C. Preconscious mind D. Superego

______ 15. The creation of the ______________ occurs through the process of identification with significant others, most often parents.
A. Ego B. Id and ego C. Superego D. Id

______ 16. Freud's concept of the ego is most likely referred to as the "executive of the personality" because:
A. It is the first to form and therefore the most senior personality structure
B. It functions primarily in the conscious mind, which represents the highest level of mental functioning
C. It must balance the needs of the id, superego, and reality
D. It generates and provides the psychic energy on which the other personality structures depend

______ 17. When confronted by potentially overwhelming urges, the ego may resort to what are called ________________ in order to reject or distort reality and thus effectively reduce the anxiety that accompanies these urges.
A. Free associations B. Subliminal psychodynamic activations
C. Archetypes D. Defense mechanisms

______ 18. Psychoanalysts generally agree that ____________ is the primary defense mechanism utilized by the ego to control the anxiety-generating urges created by the id.
A. Sublimation B. Denial C. Repression D. Reaction formation

______ 19. Sigmund Freud speculated that someone who receives very lax toilet training during the anal stage of development will tend to be:
A. A messy, pessimistic, and dominant adult B. An obsessive and orderly adult
C. A talkative, orally-focused adult D. A well-adjusted, healthy adult

______ 20. Both the Oedipus and Electra complex are thought to take place during the:
A. Anal stage B. Latency stage C. Oral stage D. Phallic stage

______ 21. One of the primary drawbacks of psychoanalytic theory is that:
A. None of Sigmund Freud's propositions have held up under research

B. It is so comprehensive that it is hard to test specific predictions
C. It is so limited that it doesn't explain enough
D. It failed to stimulate future research

______ 22. A central concept in Carl Rogers's theory is __________, which refers to our consistent set of perceptions of and beliefs about ourselves.
A. Unconditional positive regard B. The need for positive self-regard
C. The self D. Self-actualization

______ 23. Carl Rogers assumed that people have an innate need to receive love, sympathy, and acceptance from others, which he called:
A. A condition of worth B. A need for positive regard
C. Self-actualization D. A need for positive self-regard

______ 24. People who tend to feel positively about themselves or, in other words, have high __________, have been found to be happier, have fewer relationship difficulties, and reach higher achievement levels than people who feel more negatively about themselves.
A. Self-efficacy B. Self-verification C. Self-consistency D. Self-esteem

______ 25. Consider the following statement: The average citizen can have an influence in government decisions. Whether or not a person agrees or disagrees with this statement would provide information most relevant to which psychological concept?
A. Self-verification B. Self-enhancement

C. Extraversion D. Internal-external locus of control

______ 26. Albert Bandura's concept of self-efficacy specifically refers to people's:
A. Beliefs about their abilities to perform behaviors needed to achieve specific outcomes
B. Tendencies to behave in ways consistent with their self-concepts
C. Beliefs about the general amount of control they have in their lives
D. Tendencies to want to feel positively about themselves

______ 27. The NEO-PI measure of personality was developed using what is called the ____________ approach to personality scale construction.
A. Rational-theoretical B. Trait C. Behavioral D. Empirical

______ 28. Which of the following psychological tests was created using the empirical approach to test construction?
A. NEO-PI B. TAT C. MMPI D. Rorschach inkblot test

______ 29. The basic assumption underlying projective tests is that if you present someone with a(n) ___________ stimulus, the interpretation for this stimulus will come from within and thus presumably represent or reflect the person's inner needs and feelings.
A. Sexual B. Ambiguous C. Psychodynamically meaningful D. Neutral

______ 30. The Rorschach inkblot test and the TAT are both examples of what are called:
A. Projective tests B. Empirically derived tests

C. Behavioral assessments D. Objective measures of personality

Exam #4 Study Guide

Study Guide Chapter 12

• Describe four broad issues that guide developmental research.
• Explain how cross-sectional, longitudinal, and sequential designs differ.
• What determines the sex of a child? How do STDs, alcohol, and other drugs affect prenatal development? Identify other broad classes of teratogens.
• Describe the three cognitive processes and four stages of cognitive development outlined by Piaget, and describe research that supports and contradicts these ideas. Describe assimilation and accommodation. How are they related to cognitive development? How do infants develop cognitively during the sensorimotor stage? Identify some achievements and limitations of the preoperational stage. How does thinking change during the concrete and formal operational stages? In what major ways does research support and contradict Piaget’s basic ideas?
• Describe how Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development and information-processing approaches challenge Piaget’s views. What is the so-called zone of proximal development, and why is it important?
• Describe the various types of temperament and discuss whether infant temperament predicts behaviors observed in later childhood and adulthood.
• What does Erikson’s model of psychosocial development imply regarding the stability of personality?
• How did Harlow demonstrate the importance of contact comfort? Differentiate between stranger and separation anxiety. What is the “strange situation”? Describe the types of attachments identified by this procedure. Does day care impair infants’ attachment? Does it seem to have any long-term effects on children?
• In the short and long term, how do children generally respond to parental divorce? What factors enhance their adjustment to divorce and remarriage?
• Outline parenting styles associated with the most and least positive child outcomes What parenting styles are associated with the most and least positive child outcomes?
• How do the preconventional, conventional, and postconventional stages of moral reasoning differ? What aspects of Kohlberg’s model have been supported? What are its limitations?
• Discuss how adolescents’ reasoning abilities change, and the ways in which their thinking is egocentric. Identify some of the different ways that adolescents approach the challenge of establishing an identity. To what extent are parent–teen relationships characterized by Sturm und Drang (“storm and stress”)? Does this seem to hold true across different ethnic groups?
• Discuss some of the factors people consider in defining themselves as adults.
• Describe the cognitive and emotional changes associated with various forms of dementia.
• According to Erikson, what are the three major developmental challenges of adulthood?
• How does marital satisfaction typically change over time? What major events are associated with these changes?
• Why is it incorrect to say that there is a “normal” or “proper” way to confront death?

Study Guide Chapter 13

• Describe Freud’s structures of personality, their operating principles, and how they interact with one another.
• Describe Freud’s structures of personality, their operating principles, and how they interact with one another. How and why do defense mechanisms develop? What specific forms do they take? How does each of Freud’s psychosexual stages contribute to adult personality? hat are the major difficulties in testing psychoanalytic theory? What is the current status of unconscious processes and psychosexual development?
• What is meant by self-actualization? How does this concept conflict with Freud’s conception of human nature? Describe the roles of self-consistency and congruence in Rogers’s self-theory. How do these concepts relate to adjustment? How do conditions of worth develop, and how can they hinder adjustment?
• How do differences in self-esteem affect behavior? What conditions affect self-esteem development? According to research by Josephs, Bosson, and Jacobs (2003), how is low self-esteem maintained over time?
• List the strengths and weaknesses of the phenomenological and humanistic approaches to personality.
• What is factor analysis, and how is it used to identify personality traits? Describe Cattell’s factor-analytic approach to measuring personality traits. What does “OCEAN” stand for in the Five Factor model?
• What does research show regarding the assumption of stability of the personality across time and in various situations? What do studies of twins suggest about the respective roles of (a) genetic factors; (b) the family environment; and (c) the individual environment in personality traits?
• Describe the major distinction between behavioral theories of personality and the psychodynamic, humanistic, and trait theories of personality.
• Describe Rotter’s concept of the locus of control and how it affects behavior.
• What is self-efficacy? What four sources of information influence one’s efficacy beliefs?
• How do the personality perspectives differ in terms of (a) the structure of personality; (b) major personality processes; (c) personality development; and (d) the roots of maladjustment?
• Outline the various dimensions of culture that can affect personality development.
• Describe the two characteristics that personality measures must have in order to be scientifically useful. Compare the rational-theoretical and empirical approaches to developing personality roles. What are the assumptions underlying projective tests? Describe two personality scales and two projective tests that are widely used.

Study Guides for Exam #3: Chapters 7 & 8

Chapter 7 Study Guide

• Define learning. Define and describe habituation.
• Describe the work of Pavlov in establishing the foundations of classical conditioning.
• Describe how stimulus generalization, stimulus discrimination, and higher-order conditioning extend classical conditioning.
• Describe how the principles of classical conditioning can be used to explain the acquisition and treatment of fears and phobias, attraction or aversion to specific stimuli, and physical symptoms with no medical cause.
• Describe the work of Thorndike and Skinner in establishing the foundations of operant conditioning.
• Compare and contrast classical and operant conditioning.
• Differentiate among positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, aversive punishment, response cost, and operant extinction.
• Describe the research findings regarding corporal punishment in parenting.
• Contrast shaping and chaining in operant conditioning.
• Describe how operant conditioning can be applied in educational and work settings and in specialized animal training.
• Describe the five main steps in a behavioral self-regulation program.
• Define observational learning, describe Bandura’s modeling theory, and outline the steps in the modeling process.
• Describe how learning influences the brain, and summarize the biological, psychological, and environmental factors involved in learning.

Chapter 8 Study Guide

• Define memory and the processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval.
• Describe sensory memory, and explain how Sperling demonstrated it.
• Describe short-term and working memory.
• Describe long-term memory and its limitations.
• Differentiate between effortful and automatic processing.
• Contrast maintenance and elaborative rehearsal.
• Differentiate between declarative memory and procedural memory.
• Explain how retrieval cues assist recall.
• Describe how flashbulb memories affect accuracy of memory.
• Describe Ebbinghaus’s research on forgetting.
• Describe reasons for forgetting, including encoding failure, decay theory, and interference theory.
• Describe motivated forgetting and explain why it is controversial.
• Define the misinformation effect, and explain how it affects eyewitness testimony in children and adults.Describe the research examining the recovered memory controversy.
• Describe how culture affects memory.
• Describe brain structures involved in memory.
• Describe research-based strategies for enhancing memory.

Extra Credit - Negative Reinforcement University

Extra Credit Due in class on Feb. 15, 2008

Go the NRU website (see link below)

• Register at the kiosk once inside NRU
• Go to the classroom and then see if you can get out of the dungeon
• Then go to the lab and the testing room
• Print out your diploma with a final exam score of 7/10 or greater

Here's the negative reinforcement university link:

http://www.mcli.dist.maricopa.edu/proj/nru/nru_web.html

Little Albert- Classical Conditioning

A youtube video on the famous Little Albert study:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aG6A66iV5tk&feature=related

Classical Conditioning Clip

This is the clip we saw in class from "The Office" television show:

http://vids.myspace.com/index.cfm?fuseaction=vids.individual&videoid=26138538

National Sleep Foundation

Got sleep questions? Here's a great resource for all sleep-related questions:


http://www.sleepfoundation.org/site/c.huIXKjM0IxF/b.2417141/k.2E30/The_National_Sleep_Foundation.htm

Neuroscience for Kids

Here's a great resource for all things related to the brain, neurons, neurotransmitters, nervous systems, etc. Check it out!

http://faculty.washington.edu/chudler/neurok.html

Chapter 6 Study Guide

1. Describe some basic characteristics of consciousness. How do psychologists measure the states of consciousness? Explain Freud’s three-level system of consciousness. How do cognitive psychologists view the unconscious? What is automatic processing, and why is it important?

2. Describe the adaptive significance of consciousness.

3. How do the brain and environment regulate circadian rhythms? What are free-running circadian rhythms? Explain how jet lag, night-shift work, and seasonal affective disorder (SAD) involve circadian disruptions.

4. What brain-wave patterns distinguish the first four stages of sleep? Describe some major characteristics of REM sleep. What areas of the brain help regulate sleep onset and REM sleep? How do sleep patterns change as we age?

5. What evidence indicates that genetic factors partly account for differences in people’s sleep behaviors?

6. How do different types of sleep deprivation affect mood and performance?

7. Explain the restoration and evolutionary/circadian theories of sleep.

8. What is insomnia, and how is it treated? Describe the major symptoms of narcolepsy and REM sleep behavior disorder. What factors contribute to sleepwalking? Identify the major differences between nightmares and night terrors. What causes sleep apnea and how is it treated?

9. According to the Freudian and activation-synthesis theories, why do we dream? Describe the main assumption of cognitive-process dream theory. What evidence supports it?

10. How do drugs increase and decrease synaptic transmission? What is the relationship between tolerance, compensatory responses, and withdrawal? How does learning affect drug tolerance and overdosing?

11. Describe the effects of the major drug classes—including depressants, stimulants, opiates, hallucinogens, and marijuana—on the nervous system and behavior.

12. How does alcohol affect the brain? How does being intoxicated affect decisions about drinking and driving?

13. How do stimulants affect brain functioning? Why does heavy use lead to a crash? Outline the ways that amphetamines, cocaine, and Ecstasy affect the brain.

14. Describe the effects of opiates, hallucinogens, and marijuana. What are the two main effects of opiates? What is the greatest danger of hallucinogens? Describe three myths about marijuana.

15. What evidence supports the hypothesis that genetic factors influence drug reactions? Describe how psychological and environmental factors influence drug reactions.

Chapter 4 Study Guide

1. Name and describe the functions of the three main parts of the neuron.
2. How do glial cells differ from neurons? What functions do they have in the nervous system?
3. Describe the 3 basic steps of nerve activation. What is an action potential? Resting potential? Absolute refractory period? All or none law?
4. What is the nature and importance of the myelin sheath? Which disorder results from inadequate myelinization?
5. What are neurotransmitters? How do they work? Describe the roles of acetylcholine, dopamine, serotonin, and endorphins in psychological functions.
6. Describe the difference between drugs that are agonists and those that are antagonists.
7. What are the three major types of neurons in the nervous system? What are their functions?
8. Differentiate between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
9. Describe the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system, as well as their roles in maintaining homeostasis.
10. Describe four methods used to study brain–behavior relations.How are CAT scans, PET scans, MRIs, and functional MRIs conducted, and how is each used in brain research?
11. Explain the functions of the medulla, the pons, and the cerebellum. Describe the roles played by the ascending and descending reticular formation.
12. Describe the structural characteristics of the thalamus and the hypothalamus. Discuss the role of the hippocampus and amygdala in psychological function.
13. Describe the location and function of the four lobes of the brain. Explain how the Wernicke’s and Broca areas are involved in speech. Describe the role of the frontal cortex in higher mental functions.
14. Describe current research on the role of frontal lobe functioning and violence.
15. Define hemispheric lateralization and discuss what functions are located in the left versus right hemispheres.
16. Contrast the function of the endocrine system with the nervous system.

Homework Assignment #2: Chapters 4 & 6

Here is the second homework assignment. Hard copies will be provided in class.

Chapter 4 True/False Questions

______ 1. The three main parts of the neuron are the axon, cell body, and dendrites.
______ 2. The main function of glial cells is to speed up the transmission of neural impulses.
______ 3. The two ways in which neurotransmitters are deactivated in the synapse are chemical breakdown and reuptake.
______ 4. The job of the sensory neurons is to transmit neural impulses from the sense organs to the brain.
______ 5. The two divisions of the sympathetic nervous system are the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.
______ 6. PET scans are used to study brain activity, whereas CT scans are utilized to examine brain structures.
______ 7. The medulla plays an important role in the coordination of muscular movement and also in learning and memory.
______ 8. The job of the thalamus is to organize sensory input and route it to the appropriate brain areas.
______ 9. Wernicke's area is primarily concerned with speech production, whereas Broca's area is related to speech comprehension.
______ 10. Lateralization refers to the way in which a brain function can be more localized in one brain hemisphere or the other.
______ 11. The endocrine system uses hormones as its primary method of communication.

Chapter 4 Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each question. Write answers on the answer sheet provided. Choose only one answer per question.

______ 12. Neurons:
A. Generate electricity that creates nerve impulses
B. Release chemical signals to neighboring neurons
C. Are the basic building blocks of the nervous system
D. All of these

______ 13. The dendrite's function is to:
A. Receive information from the cell body and send chemical messages to neighboring neurons
B. Conduct electrical impulses away from the cell body to other neurons, muscles or glands
C. Receive incoming chemical messages from neighboring neurons and send them to the cell body
D. Combine and process incoming information

______ 14. Which of the following is NOT a function of glial cells?
A. Glial cells surround neurons and hold them in place
B. Glial cells manufacture nutrient chemicals that neurons need
C. Glial cells send and receive nerve impulses
D. Glial cells provide sanitizing functions, absorbing toxins and waste materials

______ 15. Myelin's influence on nerve impulses is to:
A. Speed up neural conduction
B. Slow down neural conduction
C. Provide support for neural conduction
D. Have no effect on neural conduction

______ 16. Black widow spider venom acts as a(n) _____________ for acetylcholine (ACh) and results in violent muscle contractions, convulsions and possible death.
A. Deactivator B. Agonist C. Antagonist D. Neuromodulators

______ 17. Alcohol is a(n):
A. Depressant with both agonist and antagonist effects
B. Stimulant that increases the activity of neurons
C. Antagonist of GABA
D. Agonist of glutamate

______ 18. If you are walking down a dark hallway and your friend jumps out to startle you, which division of the autonomic nervous system will be activated?
A. The somatic nervous system
B. The peripheral nervous system
C. The parasympathetic nervous system
D. The sympathetic nervous system

______ 19. Which of the following enables researchers to observe "real-time" brain activity?
A. An MRI B. A CAT scan C. A PET scan D. An fMRI

______ 20. Police officers try to determine if a driver is drunk by giving him/her tests of coordination. That is because alcohol disrupts _____________ function.
A. Reticular formation B. Pons C. Cerebellum D. Medulla

______ 21. Multiple sclerosis, a progressive disease that results in jerky and uncoordinated movements and eventual paralysis, is caused by:
A. Excessive amounts of myelin on neurons
B. An absence of the nodes of Ranvier
C. Damage to the myelin sheath
D. The myelin covering not only the axon but also the axon terminals

______ 22. The ___________ plays a major role in emotional and motivational behaviors, including sexual behavior, temperature regulation, sleeping, eating, drinking and fighting or fleeing.
A. Thalamus B. Limbic system C. Hypothalamus D. Hippocampus

______ 23. The amygdala organizes emotional and motivational behaviors, especially those linked to:
A. Thought and reason
B. Euphoria and humor
C. Sadness and depression
D. Aggression and fear

______ 24. Which part of the cerebral cortex controls 600 or more muscles involved in voluntary movements?
A. Association cortex B. Somatic sensory cortex C. Parietal lobe D. Motor cortex

______ 25. Damage to the Wernicke's area, located in the _________ lobe, would leave an individual ______________________.
A. Frontal; unable to comprehend written or spoken speech
B. Temporal; unable to produce written or spoken speech
C. Temporal; unable to comprehend written or spoken speech
D. Frontal; unable to produce written or spoken speech

______ 26. The prefrontal cortex is responsible for:
A. Executive functions such as goal setting, judgment, strategic planning and impulse control
B. Important mental functions such as perception, language and thought
C. Motivational and emotional behaviors such as temperature regulation, sexual behaviors, fighting and fleeing
D. Vital functions such as eating, drinking, sleeping, heart rate and respiration

______ 27. The role of the corpus callosum is to:
A. Allow nerve impulses to travel from one hemisphere to the other
B. Allow hemispheres to process sensory information twice
C. Prevent against impairment if one side of the brain were to get damaged
D. Allow the brain to work as two separate and distinct units, independent from one
E. another

______ 28. The ability of neurons to change in structure and function is called:
A. Differentiation B. Evolution C. Lateralization D. Neural plasticity

______ 29. The nervous, endocrine and immune systems:
A. Operate independently from one another
B. Are "static" systems that are unable to adapt to new input
C. Influence one another and form a communication network
D. Operate in a "domino effect," with the nervous system triggering the first activity

Chapter 6 True/False Questions

______ 1. Some of the basic characteristics of consciousness are that it is subjective, private, and dynamic.
______ 2. Automatic processing involves the voluntary use of attention and conscious effort.
______ 3. Free-running circadian rhythms are typically a little shorter than 24 hours.
______ 4. Both jet lag and seasonal affective disorder can be treated by controlled exposure to light.
______ 5. During REM sleep, your body is typically less physiologically aroused than during wakefulness.
______ 6. REM sleep decreases consistently across the lifespan from infancy to late adulthood.
______ 7. Research has shown that when people are awoken during NREM sleep, they report experiencing a dream between 15 and 50% of the time.
______ 8. According to the text, research has found that people who use marijuana are more likely to start using other, more dangerous drugs.

Chapter 6 Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer for each question. Write answers on the answer sheet provided Choose only one answer per question.

______ 9. In Freud's levels-of-consciousness model, the preconscious and the unconscious are similar in that they both:
A. Are examples of automatic processing
B. Contain information that people are currently aware of
C. Are equivalent to the modern-day notion of the cognitive unconscious
D. Contain information that people are currently unaware of

______ 10. Which of the following is most representative of the cognitive perspective on the unconscious?
A. Our unconscious mind is driven by instinctive urges
B. Our preconscious mind is driven by repressed conflicts
C. Our conscious and unconscious mental lives are complementary forms of information processing
D. There is a "hidden observer" who is aware of everything that happens

______ 11. When a person is learning how to type, their behavior usually involves __________ processing, but someone who can type quickly, efficiently, and accurately is probably utilizing more ____________ processing.
A. Automatic; controlled
B. Controlled; automatic
C. Automatic; effortful
D. Effortful; controlled

______ 12. The hormone melatonin has the strongest association with which of the following?
A. The cerebellum
B. The reticular activation system
C. The basal forebrain
D. The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

______ 13. Beta waves are to theta waves as:
A. Awake is to asleep
B. Light sleep is to deep sleep
C. Deep sleep is to REM sleep
D. REM sleep is to awake

______ 14. When asleep, a person is spending approximately half of his sleep time in REM sleep. This person most likely:
A. Is an elderly person
B. Has a melatonin deficiency
C. Has a damaged reticular formation
D. Is an infant

______ 15. Studies have observed that the sleep patterns of identical twins are more similar than the sleep patterns of fraternal twins are. This suggests that ____________ factors may play a role in accounting for differences in how much people sleep.
A. Cultural B. Genetic C. Environmental D. Psychological

______ 16. The treatment for insomnia called stimulus control involves limiting the activities that occur in bed to just sleeping. This treatment is most likely based on which of the following perspectives?
A. The biological perspective
B. The cognitive perspective
C. The behavioral perspective
D. The psychodynamic perspective

______ 17. Nightmares and night terrors are similar in that they both:
A. Usually occur during REM sleep
B. Involve intense negative emotions
C. Result from the failure of normal REM sleep paralysis
D. Usually also involve sleepwalking

______ 18. Opiates such as morphine and codeine both contain molecules that are similar to endorphins, the body's natural painkillers. Opiates like these bind to receptor sites that are keyed to endorphins and trigger similar pain-reducing responses. Given these characteristics, both morphine and codeine would be classified as:
A. Antagonists B. Hallucinogens C. Antigens D. Agonists

______ 19. The active ingredient in the marijuana plant is:
A. THC B. Opium C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) D. Cannabinoids

______ 20. The most widely used illegal drug in the United States is:
A. Alcohol B. Marijuana C. LSD D. Heroin

______ 21. Drugs such as Angel Dust and Ecstasy are called _______________. They usually function to distort or intensify sensory experience and can blur the boundary between reality and fantasy.
A. Depressants B. Hallucinogens C. Opiates D. Stimulants

______ 22. The two primary effects of drugs called ____________ are to reduce pain and to induce euphoria.
A. Stimulants B. Endorphins C. Opiates D. Hallucinogens

______ 23. Antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia act by binding with and blocking dopamine receptor sites, thus reducing the effects of abnormally high levels of this neurotransmitter. This means that these medications would be classified as:
A. Antigens B. Agonists C. Antagonists D. Stimulants